English and numerous other languages of Europe use a have-perfect of the type 'I have written'. In classical Greek, we find an apparently similar construction, but the participle is morphologically an active one (alternatively, it can be a so-called 'middle' participle). How did this come about, and how - if at all - is it related to the broader history of the perfect in Greek? To find out, see Andreas Willi's 'The rise, function, and fall of the σχῆμα Σοφόκλειον', which just appeared in Glotta.